Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2024 - 2025 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống 4 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global Success (Có ma trận, đáp án)

Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Global Success năm 2024 - 2025 gồm 4 đề có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo.

Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 được biên soạn bám sát nội dung chương trình trong sách giáo khoa Global Success. Thông qua đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 giữa học kì 1 sẽ giúp quý thầy cô giáo xây dựng đề kiểm tra theo chuẩn kiến thức và kỹ năng, giúp phụ huynh kiểm tra kiến thức cho các con của mình. Đặc biệt giúp các em luyện tập củng cố và nâng cao kỹ năng làm quen với các dạng bài văn để làm bài kiểm tra giữa học kì 1 đạt kết quả tốt. Vậy sau đây là Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Global Success, mời các bạn cùng tải tại đây. Bên cạnh đó các bạn xem thêm bộ đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Ngữ văn 10 KNTT.

Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Global Success năm 2024 - 2025

1. Đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 Global success - Đề 1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO......…
TRƯỜNG THPT ........................

KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I NĂM HỌC 20242025 Môn: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10

Thời gian: 60 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề)

Choose the correct letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress.

1. A. singer B. receive C. programme D. lyrics

2. A. common B. music C. people D. perform

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.

3. A. machine B. magazine C. engine D. confine

4. A. good B. foot C. hook D. loot

Choose the best answer among A, B, C and D.

There are many things you can do to help end plastic pollution. Firstly, you should reduce your use of plastic. You should avoid single-use plastic products such as straws or takeaway coffee cups. Instead, choose reusable products made from bamboo or metal. Secondly, you should reuse plastic. If you have plastic items, make sure you use them many times. For example, you can refill water bottles and reuse lunch boxes. Besides, you should use strong, reusable bags for shopping made from other materials rather than plastic. Finally, you should recycle plastic whenever you can. Before you buy anything sold in plastic, check the recycling symbols. Always try to recycle plastic items instead of throwing them away in the rubbish bin. Remember that there are many things that are made from recycled plastic.

5. A. bags B. clothing C. products D. items

6. A. used B. done C. set D. made

7. A. sure B. certain C. sound D. use

8. A. more B. rather C. less D. fewer

9. A. putting B. placing C. throwing D. turning

Choose the answer that best fits each blamk.

10. Let’s go out for some drink,…?

A. do we B. don’t we C. shall we D. why not

11. My friend and I were so….to go to the Youth Music Festival.

A. exciting B. excited C. excitement D. excitive

12. We are really looking forward to her….this Sunday.

A. performing B. performer C. performant D. performance

13. Turning round, I saw her….the street.

A. crossed B. crossing C. to cross D. cross

14. To save….and reduce our carbon footprints we should turn off all our appliances when we don't use them.

A. light B. energy C. life D. environment

15. While my aunt is the breadwinner, my uncle is the….

A. housekeeper B. housemother C. homeowner D. homemaker

16. This book....in the classroom yesterday.

A. was left B. was leaving C. leaves D. left

17. She is buying some sugar and flour. She….a cake this evening

A. is going to make B. makes C. made D. has made

18. ….. cars can work with little human control.

A. No-driver B. Not driven C. Driverless D. Non-driver

19. She told us her life story while we….her tidy the house.

A. are helping B. have helped C. were helping D. help

20. This device people….to communicate by using voice commands.

A. allows B. makes C. applies D. lets

21. Tom has had this iPad….3 years.

A. for B. since C. from D. in

WRITING. Choose the sentence that means the same as the original sentence.

22. It was sunny, so Lan took an umbrella.

A. It was sunny; therefore, Lan took an umbrella.
B. It was sunny because Lan took an umbrella.
C. If it was sunny, Lan would take an umbrella.
D. Although it was sunny, Lan took an umbrella.

23. They are not allowed to go out in the evening by their parents.

A. Going out in the evening is permitted by their parents.
B. Their parents never go out in the evening.
C. Their parents do not let them go out in the evening.
D. Although their parents do not allow, they still go out in the evening.

24. ‘Let's go to the theatre tonight,’ she suggested.

A. She suggested they to go to the theatre that night.
B. She suggested going to the theatre that night.
C. She suggested that they went to the theatre that night.
D. She suggested that let's them go to the theatre that night.

Choose the best response.

25. Phong: Let’s go to the school concert on Saturday evening, Nam!

Nam: ……. Where can we meet?

A. I'd love to
B. I don't feel like it.
C. I'm sorry
D. No, thank you.

26. Customer: Thank you for your help.

Shop assistant: No problem. …..ask me if you need further information.

A. Feel free to
B. Feel happy to
C. Feel fine to
D. Feel excited to

Choose the word/phrase that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part.

27. When I saw Dad’s face red with anger, that really brought home to me the impact of my mítake.

A. drove me home
B. made me understand
C. drove me mad
D. made me embarrassed

Choose the word/phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part.

28. He seemed ill at ease hearing the bad news.

A. unhappy
B. unworried
C. undisturbed
D. indifferent

Read the passage and choose the best answer.

Minh started his volunteering activities eight years ago when he was in grade 2.

One day, while he was watching a programme on TV, he saw how difficult life was for children in poor areas. His parents encouraged him to do something good, so Minh started to put aside some of his pocket money for charity. Since then, whenever his school raises money to help people in need, Minh has always donated some.

At the end of each school year, Minh also collects unwanted textbooks and notebooks from his classmates to send to poor students in different regions. In winter, Minh and his friends usually collect warm clothes to donate to people in the cold mountainous areas of Vietnam. Minh is proud of what he does to help other people. He has also persuaded his younger brother and his cousins to join him in his charity work.

29. Which is the best title for this passage?

A. A Young Volunteer
B. What Is Volunteer For?
D. Who Is Volunteer Work For?
D. A Volunteer At School

30. Minh decided to participete in volunteer work because….

A. he watched TV
B. he found his life was too difficult
C. he felt sympathy for children in poor areas.
D. his parents discouraged him to

31. He collected old textbooks to……

A. sell to poor people in mountains
B. give to poor children in different areas.
C. give to his poor classmates
D. to save for his parents’ use.

32. His parents also advised him to…..

A. save his money in pockets.
B. keep his pocket money in safe
C. save his pocket money for charity
D. raise money to buy textbooks

33. The word ‘persuaded’ is closest in meaning to….

A. advised B. encouraged C. participated D. promised

LISTENING.

Listen to Mr. Jones talking about how his town has changed in the last thirty years. Then give short answers the following questions.

34. Where did people move to in the 1990s? ………………………..

35. Why did a lot of people lose their jobs? ………………………..

36. What was polluted in the town? ………………………..

Write a short paragraph, using the following prompts.

37. Beethoven / born / 1770 / Bonn, Germany.

38. He / start / learn piano / age of 4 / and / taught / his father.

39. When / he / 22 / he / move / Vienna / study / famous composer Hayden.

40. He / start / become / famous composer / when / he / 30.

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10

LISTENING.

Key

34. bigger cities

35. The factories and coal power plant were closed.

36. the air

WRITING. (37-40)

Beethoven was born in 1770 in Bonn, Germany. He started to learn piano at the age of 4 and was taught by his father. When he was 22, he moved to Vienna to study with a famous composer Hayden. He started to become a famous composer when he was 30.

LISTENING SCRIPT

Claire: Hello, Mr. Jones. Thank you for helping with my project.

Mr. Jones: That's OK. What do you want to know?

Claire: How has the town changed in the last thirty years?

Mr. Jones: It's changed a lot. There used to be more people, but many people moved away to live in bigger cities in the 1990s.

Claire: Why?

Mr. Jones: Because many factories were closed. There was a coal power plant here, too. That closed too and lots of people lost their jobs. It was terrible for workers here.

Claire: I see. Has anything got better?

Mr. Jones: Well, when the power plant was here, the air was so polluted. Air quality has gotten a lot better since the power plant closed.

Claire: Anything else?

Mr. Jones: There's a lot more to do in the town than when I was young. We only had a movie theater when I was your age. That was rebuilt near the park five years ago. It's much nicer now.

Claire: Yes, I love the movie theater.

2. Đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 Global success - Đề 2

Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO......…
TRƯỜNG THPT ........................

KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 Môn: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10

Thời gian: 60 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề)

I. LISTENING: (2.0 pts)

Bài nghe:

PART 1: For questions 1-4, listen to Dave talking about his experience of doing a volunteer work. Choose the best option A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 1. When did Dave participate in the campaign?

A. last year
B. last weekend
C. last week
D. last month

Question 2. What is the name of the campaign?

A. Green issues
B. Green living
C. Go Green
D. Green house

Question 3. Who was the leader of each group?

A. teacher
B. John
C. Mary
D. Alice

Question 4. How many trees did they plant in their school?

A. 1
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15

PART 2: For questions 5-8, Listen again and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 5. Dave and his schoolmates planted trees in 4 schools.

Question 6. They only planted small trees.

Question 7. Dave’s team planted 50 trees in total.

Question 8. Dave was tired but still happy.

II. LANGUAGE: (3.0 pts)

PART 1:Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9. A. housework B. reduce C. famous D. music

Question10. A. perform B. enjoy C. laundry D. adopt

PART 2: Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11. They decided to Japan for their summer holiday.

A. going
B. to go
C. go
D. to going

Question 12. Doing housework helps family bonds.

A. strengthen
B. damage
C. divide
D. support

Question 13. Oh, I forgot my course book this morning. Can I borrow yours? I it back to you after using it.

A. will give
B. give
C. am going to give
D. going to give

Question 14. My sister usually charge of doing the washing-up in her family.

A. take
B. is taking
C. takes
D. will take

Question 15. A lot of students in my school are going to take part the Go Green Weekend event.

A. for
B. of
C. in
D. on

Question 16. We’ll organize more activities to local people’s awareness of environmental issues.

A. take
B. get
C. have
D. raise

Question 17. Bamboo is considered to be one of the most building materials.

A. eco-friendly
B. chemical
C. harmful

D. polluted

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 18. Sue plans (A) study (B) abroad next year according to (C) her parent’s advice.(D)

Question 19. I really love his music because (A) he is a talent (B) artist who (C)can write music and play many musical(D) instruments.

Question 20. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

Tom was disappointed because he was eliminated in the third round of the competition .

A. performed
B.preferred
C. voted
D. removed

I. READING : (2.5pts)

PART 1: Read the passage and circle the best option for each the numbered blanks from 21to 25.

River pollution (21) _ when pollutants are not removed from sewage and are discharged into the river. River water is a very important source of freshwater required to sustain life. We need a constant supply of fresh water for (22) , cooking and washing. Animals living near the river, as well as fishes and aquatic plants, also depend (23) clean river water. When heavy rainfall occurs, pollutants accumulated within the boundaries of the catchment area may be washed into river channels. These pollutants include a (24) of agrochemicals like fertilizers (25) insecticides .

Question 21. A. occurs B. occur C. occurred D. had occurred

Question 22. A. drink B. drinking C. to drink D.drunk

Question 23. A. in B. at C. on D.for

Question 24. A. vary B. variety C.various D.variously

Question 25. A. and B. or C. but D.so

PART 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (from 26 to 30).

Adele has been one of the world's most well-known singers and songwriters in recent years. Born in North London in 1988, Adele started singing at a young age and she was mostly influenced by the Spice Girls. At the age of 16, Adele composed her first hit song, "Hometown Glory".

When she was a student at the British School for Performing Arts and Technology, she recorded three songs for a class project. All these songs later were posted on MySpace.com and became very popular. As a result, she was offered a record deal from XL Recordings after her graduation. Her first album "19" debuted at number one on the British charts in 2008.

In March 2008, she did a short tour in America and soon her international career began. In 2011, her second album, "21" came out. The music on this album was different from the soul music of "19". It was influenced by American country music, which Adele was listening to during her tour.

In 2012, she wrote and recorded "Skyfall" for the James Bond film of the same name. The song sold more than two million copies worldwide and for it, Adele won the Academy Award for Best Original Song. Since 2012, Adele has won many more awards. She has many fans including other famous singers because they admire her unique voice and her passion for music.

(Adapted from "Adele" by Learning Resource Network)

Question 26. Adele began writing her first song .

A. when she was 16
B. at a young age
C. after her graduation
D. when she did a short tour in America

Question 27. Adele’s first album “19” was .

A. country music
B. classical music
C. pop music
D. the soul music

Question 28. After Adele graduated from her art school, .

A. she posted her songs on My Space
B. she started singing and writing songs
C. she got a contract with a recording label
D. she started her career in America

Question 29. The word "came out" in paragraph 3 can be replaced by .

A. was composed
B. was released
C. was offered
D. was awarded

Question 30. The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to .

A. the song "Skyfall"
B. the Academy Award
C. Adele's best song
D. the 2012 James Bond film

II. WRITING: (2.5pts) PART 1:

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.

Question 31. The students collect the rubbish in the schoolyard twice a week.

The rubbish ……………………………………………………………

Question 32. Her parents don’t allow her to join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

Her parents don’t let ……………………………………………………

Combine each pair of sentences into one by using the given words.

Question 33. Tim is sleeping. You can't speak to him at the moment. (SO)

…………………………………………………….

Question 34. My mum does the cooking. My dad does the heavy lifting. (AND)

…………………………………………………….

PART 2: Write an email to your friend, Mary; and talk about your family routines. To: Mary
Subject: My family routines Hi Mary,

How are you? We’re all doing fine here. You asked me about my family routines. Well, we have a number of routines to help us learn life skills as well as build family bonds. Here are three main ones.

…………………………………………………................

....................................................................................

…………………………………………………................

....................................................................................

What do you think about my family routines? Please, write back soon and let me know.

Best wishes,

*Suggested ideas:

-household chores

-first

-second

-finally

Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

I.TRẮC NGHIỆM: (Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)

1.B

2.C

3.A

4.B

5.T

6.F

7.F

8.T

9.B

10.C

11.B

12.A

13.A

14.C

15.C

16.D

17.A

18.B

19.B

20.D

21.A

22.B

23.C

24.B

25.A

26.A

27.D

28.C

29.B

30.A

II. TỰ LUẬN 

Part 1: (Mỗi câu tự luận 0,375 đ)

Question 3 1. The rubbish in the schoolyard is collected twice a week by the students.

Question 3 2. Her parents don’t let her join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

Question 3 3. Tim is sleeping, so you can't speak to him at the moment.

Question 3 4. My mum does the cooking, and my dad does the heavy lifting.

Ma trận đề thi giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I - NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10

SỐ CÂU

ĐIỂM

NỘI DUNG/ CHỦ ĐỀ, KIẾN THỨC

MỨC ĐỘ

GC

NB

TH

VDT

VDC

8

2

Listening

4

3

1

2

0,5

Stress

(Units 1, 2 ,3)

2

4

1

Grammar

(Grammar points from Unit 1 to Unit 3)

2

1

1

Error Identification

6

1,5

Vocabulary (Unit1, 2 , 3,)

(Synonym; word form; word meaning; preposition; collocation)

4

1

1

Error Identification

(Word Form)

5

1,25

Cloze text

(Reading and choose the best option to fit each numbered blank ) Unit 2

2

2

1

5

1,25

Reading comprehension

(Reading and choose the correct answer to each of the questions) Unit 3

2

2

1

Writing(2.5pts)

2

0,75

Combination

(Conjunctions)

2

2

0,75

Transformation

(To Infinitive/ Bare-Infinitive ;passive voice)

2

1

Theme writing (Unit 1)

X

A paragraph

16

11

7

TEST SPECIFICATION: MID- FIRST- TERM TEST –ENGLISH 10- GLOBAL SUCCESS

School Year: 2023-2024

Questions

TESTED CONTENTS

LEVELS

NOTES

Knowledge

Understanding

Application

High Application

1

Multiple Choice

(Listening)

X

Level A2/

Topics related to Units 1-2-3

2

X

3

X

4

X

5

True- False

(Listening)

X

6

X

7

X

8

X

9

Stress

X

Stress in two -syllable words

(in Units 1, 2 & 3)

10

Stress

X

Stress in two -syllable words

(in Units 1, 2 & 3)

11

Vocabulary

X

Word meaning

12

Vocabulary

X

Collocation

13

Vocabulary

X

Error Identification

Word form

14

Vocabulary

X

Word meaning

15

Vocabulary

X

Preposition

16

Grammar

X

To-Infinitive/ Bare-Infinitive

17

Grammar

X

Present simple/ Present continuous

18

Grammar

X

Will/ Be going to

19

Grammar

X

Error Identification

To Infinitive

20

Vocabulary/

Synonym/ Antonym

X

Root words in the text

21

Cloze Text

(Level A2)

X

Tense

22

X

Verb form

23

X

Preposition

24

x

Part of speech

25

x

conjunction

26

Reading comprehension

(Level A2)

X

Getting details

27

x

Getting details

28

x

Getting details

29

X

Reference (Vocabulary)

30

X

Reference (pronoun)

31

Combination

X

conjunction

32

X

conjunction

33

Transformation

X

Bare-Infinitive/To-inf

34

X

Passive voice

Theme writing

X

A paragraph

TOTAL

16

11

7

One Writing

.............

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